CCNA 3 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

   • failover capabilities
   • collapsed core
   • redundant power supplies
   • failure domains
   • services module

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

   • S4 and PC_2
   • PC_3 and AP_2
   • AP_2 and AP_1
   • PC_3 and PC_2
   • S1 and S4

3. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

   • the use of a collapsed core design
   • the use of the building switch block approach
   • the installation of redundant power supplies
   • the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic
   • volume

4. How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?

   • by installing devices with failover capabilities
   • by limiting the size of failure domains
   • by deploying a collapsed core model
   • by organizing the network to control traffic patterns

5. Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

   • link aggregation
   • Spanning Tree Protocol
   • virtual private networks
   • virtual LANs

6. A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

   • Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
   • Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
   • Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
   • Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

7. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

   • increased flexibility
   • decreased number of critical points of failure
   • reduced costs
   • increased bandwidth availability
   • increased network management options

8. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

   • providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
   • grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
   • grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
   • providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

9. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

   • They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
   • They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
   • They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.
   • They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.

10. In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

    • to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
    • on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
    • on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
    • on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

11. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

    • They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
    • They are best used as distribution layer switches.
    • They are modular switches.
    • New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

12. A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a​​ replacement?

    • a Layer 3 switch
    • a modular router
    • a PoE device
    • another fixed configuration router

13. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

    • It connects multiple IP networks.
    • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
    • It determines the best path to send packets.
    • It manages the VLAN database.
    • It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

14. Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

    • a direct connection to the console port
    • a direct connection to the auxiliary port
    • a terminal emulation client
    • at least one network interface that is connected and operational
    • Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device

15. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

    • to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
    • to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
    • to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
    • to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

16. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

    • show flash
    • show NVRAM
    • show startup-config
    • show running-config
    • show version

17. What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

    • It uses a terminal emulation client.
    • It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
    • It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
    • It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.

18. Mach the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all options are used.)