Friday, March 20, 2015

CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer, CCNA 4 Chapter 1, CCNA 4 Chapter 1 v5, CCNA 4 Chapter 1 100, CCNA 4 chapter 1 2015


  1. What are two structured engineering principles necessary for successful implementation of a network design? (Choose two.)



    • quality of service

    • resiliency

    • modularity

    • security

    • availability




  2. What is an important first consideration when starting to design a network?



    • access security

    • type of applications

    • size of the network

    • protocols to be used




  3. Which two devices would commonly be found at the access layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model? (Choose two.)



    • access point

    • firewall

    • Layer 2 switch

    • Layer 3 device

    • modular switch




  4. In which layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model would PoE for VoIP phones and access points be considered?



    • access

    • core

    • data link

    • distribution

    • physical




  5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Cisco hierarchical LAN design model is used at school site 1?CCNA4_Ch1_01



    • 3 layer

    • 7 layer

    • two-tier collapsed core

    • three-tier




  6. In a hierarchical network design, which layers may be combined into a collapsed core for smaller networks?



    • core and access

    • core and distribution

    • distribution and access

    • core, distribution, and access




  7. The network design for a college with users at five sites is being developed. Where in the campus network architecture would servers used by all users be located?



    • access-distribution

    • data center

    • enterprise edge

    • services




  8. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?



    • failure isolation

    • increased network access time

    • mobility

    • redundancy




  9. A network engineer wants to redesign the wireless network and make use of wireless network controllers that manage the many deployed wireless access points. In which network design module of the campus network architecture would the centralized wireless network controllers be found?



    • access-distribution

    • data center

    • enterprise edge

    • services




  10. Which network module is the fundamental component of a campus design?



    • access-distribution module

    • services module

    • data center

    • enterprise edge




  11. Which approach in networking allows for network changes, upgrades, or the introduction of new services in a controlled and staged fashion?



    • borderless

    • static

    • modular

    • network module




  12. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of ISP connectivity to the service provider edge is being used by company A?CCNA4_Ch1_02



    • single-homed

    • dual-homed

    • multihomed

    • dual-multihomed




  13. Which three network architectures have been introduced by Cisco to address the emerging technology challenges created by the evolving business models? (Choose three.)



    • Cisco Borderless

    • Cisco Enterprise Edge

    • Cisco Data Center

    • Cisco Enterprise Campus

    • Cisco Collaboration

    • Cisco Enterprise Branch




  14. Which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture contains unified communications and conference software such as Cisco WebEx Meetings, WebEx Social, Cisco Jabber, and TelePresence?



    • applications and devices

    • enterprise WAN

    • services module

    • service provider edge




  15. Which Cisco technology allows diverse network devices to connect securely, reliably, and seamlessly to enterprise network resources?



    • building distribution

    • Cisco AnyConnect

    • enterprise edge

    • service provider edge




  16. What is creating a new challenge for IT departments by changing the border of the enterprise network?



    • company-owned desktops

    • access layer switching

    • tablets

    • energy costs




  17. Which network architecture functions through a combination of technologies that include wired, wireless, security, and more?



    • Cisco Enterprise Campus

    • Cisco Enterprise Branch

    • Cisco Borderless

    • Cisco Enterprise Edge




  18. Which network architecture combines individual components to provide a comprehensive solution allowing people to cooperate and contribute to the production of something?



    • Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture

    • Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture

    • Cisco Borderless Network Architecture

    • Cisco Collaboration Architecture




  19. Fill in the blank.
    Reducing the complexity of network design by dividing a network into smaller areas is an example of a     hierarchical       network model.​




  20. Fill in the blank. Use the abbreviation.


    Under the Cisco Enterprise Edge module, the submodule that provides remote access including authentication and IPS appliances is the    VPN             and remote access submodule.




  21. Match the layer to the corresponding device. (Not all options are used.)




  22. CCNA4_Ch1_001Match the submodule to the correct Cisco Enterprise Architecture module. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch1_002




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CCNA 4 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. A small company with 10 employees uses a single LAN to share information between computers. Which type of connection to the Internet would be appropriate for this company?

    • a dialup connection that is supplied by their local telephone service provider
    • Virtual Private Networks that would enable the company to connect easily and securely with employees
    • private dedicated lines through their local service provider
    • a broadband service, such as DSL, through their local service provider
  2. Which network scenario will require the use of a WAN?

    • Employee workstations need to obtain dynamically assigned IP addresses.
    • Employees need to connect to the corporate email server through a VPN while traveling.
    • Employees in the branch office need to share files with the headquarters office that is located in a separate building on the same campus network.
    • Employees need to access web pages that are hosted on the corporate web servers in the DMZ within their building.
  3. Which two devices are needed when a digital leased line is used to provide a connection between the customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)

    • access server
    • CSU
    • Layer 2 switch
    • DSU
    • dialup modem
  4. What are two advantages of packet switching over circuit switching? (Choose two.)

    • The communication costs are lower.
    • There are fewer delays in the data communications processes.
    • Multiple pairs of nodes can communicate over the same network channel.
    • A dedicated secure circuit is established between each pair of communicating nodes.
    • A connection through the service provider network is established quickly before communications start.
  5. What is a requirement of a connectionless packet-switched network?

    • Each packet has to carry only an identifier.
    • The network predetermines the route for a packet.
    • Full addressing information must be carried in each data packet.
    • A virtual circuit is created for the duration of the packet delivery.
  6. What is a long distance fiber-optic media technology that supports both SONET and SDH, and assigns incoming optical signals to specific wavelengths of light?

    • ISDN
    • MPLS
    • ATM
    • DWDM
  7. What are two common high-bandwidth fiber-optic media standards? (Choose two.)

    • ANSI
    • ATM
    • ITU
    • SDH
    • SONET
  8. What is the recommended technology to use over a public WAN infrastructure when a branch office is connected to the corporate site?

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • municipal Wi-Fi
    • VPN
  9. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

    • It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.
    • It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.
    • It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.
    • It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.
  10. Which WAN technology establishes a dedicated constant point-to-point connection between two sites?

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • leased lines
    • Frame Relay
  11. Which WAN technology is cell-based and well suited to carry voice and video traffic?

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • VSAT
    • Frame Relay
  12. Which two technologies use the PSTN network to provide an Internet connection? (Choose two.)

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • MPLS
    • dialup
    • Frame Relay
  13. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?

    • VSAT
    • ISDN
    • Frame Relay
    • Ethernet WAN
  14. A customer needs a WAN virtual connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need?

    • circuit-switched network
    • Ethernet WAN
    • MPLS
    • packet-switched network
  15. Which WAN connectivity method would be used in a remote location where there are no service provider networks?

    • cable
    • VPN
    • VSAT
    • WiMAX
  16. A home user lives within 10 miles (16 kilometers) of the Internet provider network. Which type of technology provides high-speed broadband service with wireless access for this home user?

    • 802.11
    • municipal Wi-Fi
    • DSL
    • WiMAX
  17. Which connectivity method would be best for a corporate employee who works from home two days a week, but needs secure access to internal corporate databases?

    • cable
    • DSL
    • VPN
    • WiMAX
  18. Which wireless technology provides Internet access through cellular networks?

    • satellite
    • municipal WiFi
    • LTE
    • WiMAX
  19. Which geographic scope requirement would be considered a distributed WAN scope?

    • local
    • one-to-one
    • one-to-many
    • many-to-many
    • regional
    • global
  20. A new corporation needs a data network that must meet certain requirements. The network must provide a low cost connection to sales people dispersed over a large geographical area. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

    • public infrastructure
    • private infrastructure
    • Internet
    • dedicated
    • satellite
  21. Match the type of WAN device or service to the description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch2_001

  22. Match the connectivity type to the description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch2_002

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CCNA 4 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. At which layer of the OSI model does multiplexing take place?

    • Layer 1
    • Layer 2
    • Layer 3
    • Layer 4
  2. Which command can be used to view the cable type that is attached to a serial interface?

    • Router(config)# show interfaces
    • Router(config)# show controllers
    • Router(config)# show ip interface
    • Router(config)# show ip interface brief
  3. Which field marks the beginning and end of an HDLC frame?

    • Data
    • FCS
    • Control
    • Flag
  4. Which serial 0/0/0 interface state will be shown if no serial cable is attached to the router, but everything else has been correctly configured and turned on?

    • Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
    • Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
    • Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
    • Serial 0/0/0 is up (looped)
    • Serial 0/0/0 is up (disabled)
    • Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
  5. Which is an advantage of using PPP on a serial link instead of HDLC?

    • option for authentication
    • higher speed transmission
    • fixed-size frames
    • option for session establishment
  6. What are three components of PPP? (Choose three.)

    • authentication
    • LCP
    • multilink
    • NCP
    • compression
    • HDLC-like framing
  7. How does PPP interface with different network layer protocols?

    • by using separate NCPs
    • by negotiating with the network layer handler
    • by encoding the information field in the PPP frame
    • by specifying the protocol during link establishment through LCP
  8. Which address is used in the Address field of a PPP frame?

    • a single byte of binary 00000000
    • a single byte of binary 10101010
    • a single byte of binary 11111111
    • the IP address of the serial interface
  9. Which three physical layer interfaces support PPP? (Choose three.)

    • FastEthernet
    • GigabitEthernet
    • POTS
    • asynchronous serial
    • synchronous serial
    • HSSI
  10. Which three are types of LCP frames used with PPP? (Choose three.)

    • link-negotiation frames
    • link-acknowledgment frames
    • link-maintenance frames
    • link-termination frames
    • link-control frames
    • link-establishment frames
  11. Which protocol will terminate the PPP link after the exchange of data is complete?

    • NCP
    • LCP
    • IPCP
    • IPXCP
  12. During a PPP session establishment phase, which two messages are sent by the requested party if the options are not acceptable? (Choose two.)

    • Configure-Nak
    • Code-Reject
    • Protocol-Reject
    • Configure-Reject
    • Discard-Request
  13. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

    • PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.
    • PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
    • PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
    • PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
    • PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.
  14. Which PPP option can detect links that are in a looped-back condition?

    • Magic Number
    • MRU
    • Callback
    • ACCM
  15. When configuring Multilink PPP, where is the IP address for the multilink bundle configured?

    • on a physical serial interface
    • on a subinterface
    • on a multilink interface
    • on a physical Ethernet interface
  16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?CCNA4_Ch3_01

    • Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
    • Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
    • Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.
    • Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.
  17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the two routers. However, the PPP link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what is the cause of the problem?​CCNA4_Ch3_03

    • The usernames do not match.
    • The passwords do not match.
    • The passwords should be longer than 8 characters.
    • The interface IP addresses are in different subnets.
  18. In which situation would the use of PAP be preferable to the use of CHAP?

    • when router resources are limited
    • when multilink PPP is used
    • when plain text passwords are needed to simulate login at the remote host
    • when a network administrator prefers it because of ease of configuration
  19. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

    • establishes identities with a two-way handshake
    • uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
    • control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
    • transmits login information in encrypted format
    • uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
    • makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session
  20. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug command output that is shown, which statement is true of the operation of PPP.CCNA4_Ch3_02

    • CHAP authentication failed because of an unknown hostname.
    • A PPP session was successfully established.
    • Both PAP and CHAP authentication were attempted.
    • The debug output is from router R2.
  21. Match the phases of establishing a PPP session in the correct order. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch3_001

  22. Match the PPP option with the correct description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch3_002

  23. Match the steps to the PPP CHAP authentication process sequence. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch3_003

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CCNA 4 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that provides more flexibility than a dedicated line?

    • Dedicated physical circuits are installed between each site.
    • Customers use dedicated circuits in increments of 64 kb/s.
    • The Frame Relay cloud allocates as much bandwidth as required to active PVCs to maintain the connection.
    • One router WAN port can be used to connect to multiple destinations.
  2. What are the two major criteria that constitute the cost of a Frame Relay circuit? (Choose two.)

    • circuit management fees
    • local loop
    • end-to-end connectivity
    • required bandwidth
    • QoS
  3. A router interface connects to a Frame Relay network over a preconfigured logical circuit that does not have a direct electrical connection from end to end. Which type of circuit is being used?

    • SVC
    • full mesh
    • PVC
    • hub and spoke
    • dedicated leased line
  4. Which Frame Relay topology provides a connection from every site to every other site and maintains a high amount of reliability?

    • partial mesh
    • full mesh
    • star
    • hub and spoke
  5. Which technology allows a Layer 3 IPv4 address to be dynamically obtained from a Layer 2 DLCI?

    • Inverse Address Resolution Protocol
    • Inverse Neighbor Discovery
    • Address Resolution Protocol
    • Neighbor Discovery
  6. A network administrator has statically configured the LMI type on the interface of a Cisco router that is running Cisco IOS Release 11.2. If the service provider modifies its own LMI type in the future, what step must the network administrator take?

    • The network administrator must modify the keepalive time interval to maintain connectivity with the LMI type of the service provider.
    • The network administrator simply has to verify connectivity with the provider, because the router has an LMI autosensing feature that automatically detects the LMI type.
    • The network administrator must statically set the LMI type to be compatible with the service provider.
    • The network administrator does not have to do anything, because all LMI types are compatible with one another.
  7. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)

    • simple flow control
    • error notification
    • congestion notification
    • mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
    • exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits
  8. Which parameter would be specified in a Frame Relay provider contract for a particular company?

    • CIR
    • DE
    • Inverse ARP enabled/disabled
    • QoS
  9. Which three notification mechanisms are used when congestion is present in a Frame Relay network? (Choose three.)

    • BECN
    • CIR
    • DE
    • DLCI
    • FECN
    • inverse ARP
  10. Why would a customer request a Frame Relay circuit with a CIR of zero?

    • to have better QoS
    • to have a backup circuit for critical data transmissions
    • to have a link with reduced costs
    • to have a circuit used for voice traffic
    • to have a circuit used for network management traffic
  11. Which provider-negotiated parameter would allow a customer to send data above the rate of the bandwidth specified by the CIR?

    • Bc
    • DE
    • Be
    • FECN
  12. What is the purpose of applying the command frame-relay map ip 10.10.1.2 110 broadcast?​

    • to configure a device with a static Frame Relay map that also allows the forwarding of routing updates
    • to allow Frame Relay frames to be broadcast on all Frame Relay interfaces
    • to allow Frame Relay frames to be broadcast toward host 10.10.1.2
    • to allow Frame Relay frames to be broadcast over DLCI 110​
    • to support IPv6 traffic over the NBMA network by using DLCI 110
  13. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Ch4_001

    • The Frame Relay map was set by using the command frame-relay map.
    • The DLCI that is attached to the VC on RB to RA is 62.
    • The IPv4 address of interface S0/1/0 on RA is 192.168.1.2.
    • The DLCI that is attached to the VC on RA to RB is 62.
    • The IPv4 address of interface S0/1/1 on RB is 192.168.1.2.  
  14. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about Frame Relay traffic on R1?CCNA4_Ch4_005

    • Traffic that is mapped to DLCI 201 will exit subinterface Serial 0/0/0.201.
    • Traffic that exits subinterface Serial 0/0/0.102 is marked with DLCI 201.
    • Traffic on Serial 0/0/0 is experiencing congestion between R1 and the Frame Switch.
    • Frames that enter router R1 from a Frame Relay neighbor will have DLCI 201 in the frame header.
  15. Which three actions can be taken to solve Layer 3 routing protocol router reachability issues when using Frame Relay? (Choose three.)

    • Use subinterfaces.
    • Disable Inverse ARP.
    • Disable split horizon.
    • Use a full mesh topology.
    • Configure static DLCI mappings.
    • Use the keyword cisco as the LMI type.
  16. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?

    • when global DLCIs are in use
    • when using physical interfaces
    • when multicasts must be supported
    • when participating routers are in the same subnet
  17. A network engineer has issued the interface serial 0/0/1.102 point-to-point command on a router that will be communicating with another router over a Frame Relay virtual circuit that is identified by the DLCI 102. Which two commands would be appropriate for the network engineer to issue next? (Choose two.)

    • no ip address
    • no shutdown
    • encapsulation frame relay
    • frame-relay interface-dlci 102
    • ip address 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.252
  18. Which two Frame Relay router reachability issues are resolved by configuring logical subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

    • Frame Relay is unable to map a remote IP address to a DLCI.
    • Link-state routing protocols are unable to complete neighbor discovery.
    • LMI status inquiry messages sent to the network are not received.
    • Inverse ARP fails to associate all IP addresses to the correct DLCIs.
    • Distance vector routing protocols are unable to forward routing updates back out the incoming interface to other remote routers.
  19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the show interfaces serial 0/1/0 command. What can be verified from the displayed output?CCNA4_Ch4_002

    • Router R1 connects to multiple sites through the serial 0/1/0 interface.
    • Router R1 is not using the default LMI type.​
    • Router R1 is forwarding traffic on interface serial 0/1/0 using the local DLCI 1023.
    • Router R1 has been configured with Frame Relay via the ietf keyword.
  20. The show frame-relay pvc command is best utilized to display the number for which type of packets that are received by the router?

    • LMI status messages
    • Inverse ARP messages
    • Inverse Neighbor Discovery messages
    • FECN and BECN messages
  21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay subinterfaces on R1. A distance vector routing protocol has also been configured. Data is routing successfully from R1 to networks that are connected to R2, R3, and R4, but routing updates between R2 and R3 are failing. What is the possible cause of this failure?CCNA4_Ch4_004

    • Subinterfaces cannot be used on multipoint Frame Relay links.
    • Two DLCI identifiers cannot be configured on one subinterface.
    • Multipoint Frame Relay networks cannot be used with this IP addressing scheme.
    • Split horizon is preventing successful routing table updates on the multipoint link.
  22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show frame-relay map command to troubleshoot the Frame Relay connection problem. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?CCNA4_Ch4_003

    • The S0/0/1 interface of the R2 router is down.
    • The IP address on S0/0/1 of R3 is configured incorrectly.
    • Inverse ARP is providing false information to the R1 router.
    • The Frame Relay map statement on the R3 router for the PVC to R2 is configured with an incorrect DLCI number.
    • The S0/0/1 interface of the R2 router has been configured with the encapsulation frame relay ietf command.
  23. Fill in the blank. Use an acronym.

    The Frame Relay    DLCI            identifies a connection from one endpoint to a remote destination.

  24. Fill in the blank.

    The encapsulation frame-relay    ietf    command enables Frame Relay encapsulation and allows connection to a device from a different vendor.

  25. Match the characteristics with the type of WAN link. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch4_001

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CCNA 4 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 4 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 4 Chapter 5 Exam Answer, CCNA 4 Chapter 5, CCNA 4 Chapter 5 v5, CCNA 4 Chapter 5 100, CCNA 4 Chapter 5 2015


  1. Typically, which network device would be used to perform NAT for a corporate environment?



    • DHCP server

    • host device

    • router

    • server

    • switch




  2. What is the group of public IPv4 addresses used on a NAT-enabled router known as?



    • outside local addresses

    • inside local addresses

    • inside global addresses

    • outside global addresses




  3. When NAT is employed in a small office, which address type is typically used for hosts on the local LAN?



    • private IP addresses

    • global public IP addresses

    • Internet-routable addresses

    • both private and public IP addresses




  4. Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a single inside global address for connecting to the Internet?



    • PAT

    • static NAT

    • dynamic NAT

    • port forwarding




  5. Which type of NAT maps a single inside local address to a single inside global address?



    • dynamic

    • static

    • port address translation

    • overloading




  6. Several key servers in an organization must be directly accessible from the Internet. What addressing policy should be implemented for these servers?



    • Use dynamic NAT to provide addresses for the servers.

    • Place all of the servers in their own Class C private subnet.

    • Use DHCP to assign addresses from the pool of Class B addresses.

    • Assign static internal addresses and public external addresses to each of the servers.




  7. What is a disadvantage of NAT?



    • There is no end-to-end addressing.

    • The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

    • The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

    • The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​




  8. Refer to the exhibit. What has to be done in order to complete the static NAT configuration on R1?CCNA4_Ch5_02



    • R1 should be configured with the command ip nat inside source static 209.165.200.1 192.168.11.11.

    • R1 should be configured with the command ip nat inside source static 209.165.200.200 192.168.11.11.

    • Interface S0/0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside.

    • Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command no ip nat inside.




  9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?CCNA4_Ch5_03



    • Access-list 1 is misconfigured.

    • NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.

    • Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface.

    • The NAT pool is incorrect.




  10. Which statement accurately describes dynamic NAT?



    • It always maps a private IP address to a public IP address.

    • It provides an automated mapping of inside local to inside global IP addresses.

    • It provides a mapping of internal host names to IP addresses.

    • It dynamically provides IP addressing to internal hosts.




  11. A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?



    • a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses

    • an access list named corp that defines the private addresses that are affected by NAT

    • an access list numbered 4 that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses

    • ip nat outside to be enabled on the interface that connects to the LAN affected by the NAT

    • a VLAN named corp to be enabled and active and routed by R1




  12. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?



    • No users can access the server.

    • The request to the server for the seventh user fails.

    • All users can access the server.

    • The first user gets disconnected when the seventh user makes the request.




  13. A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?



    • The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.

    • The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.

    • The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.

    • The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.




  14. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of entering the command that is shown in the exhibit on R2 as part of the dynamic NAT configuration?CCNA4_Ch5_04



    • It will define a pool of addresses for translation.

    • It will identify an inside NAT interface.

    • It will bind NAT-POOL1 with ACL 1.

    • It will define the source ACL for the external interface.




  15. Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?



    • access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
      ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload

    • access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
      ip nat pool comp 192.0.2.1 192.0.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
      ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp

    • access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
      ip nat pool comp 192.0.2.1 192.0.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
      ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload

    • access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
      ip nat pool comp 192.0.2.1 192.0.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
      ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload
      ip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225




  16. What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)



    • Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.

    • Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.

    • Define the range of source ports to be used.

    • Identify the inside interface.

    • Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.




  17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?CCNA4_Ch5_01



    • defines which addresses can be translated

    • defines which addresses are allowed into the router

    • defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

    • defines which addresses are allowed out of the router




  18. What is the purpose of port forwarding?



    • Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.

    • Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.

    • Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.

    • Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.




  19. What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?



    • They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.

    • They are designed to improve the security of IPv6 networks.

    • Their implementation depends on ISPs providing the service.

    • They are defined in RFC 3927.




  20. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?CCNA4_Ch5_05



    • dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses

    • PAT using an external interface

    • static NAT with one entry

    • static NAT with a NAT pool




  21. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT configuration applied to the router is as follows:
    ERtr(config)# access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
    ERtr(config)# ip nat pool corp 209.165.201.6 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
    ERtr(config)# ip nat inside source list 1 pool corp overload
    ERtr(config)# ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.55 209.165.201.4
    ERtr(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/0
    ERtr(config-if)# ip nat inside
    ERtr(config-if)# interface serial 0/0/0
    ERtr(config-if)# ip nat outside


    Based on the configuration and the output shown, what can be determined about the NAT status within the organization?CCNA4_Ch5_06



    • NAT is working.

    • Static NAT is working, but dynamic NAT is not.

    • Dynamic NAT is working, but static NAT is not.

    • Not enough information is given to determine if both static and dynamic NAT are working.




  22. Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to an external server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that is running dynamic NAT. (NAT all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch5_001




  23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


    What problem is causing PC-A to be unable to communicate with the Internet?



    • The static route should not reference the interface, but the outside address instead.

    • This router should be configured to use static NAT instead of PAT.

    • The ip nat inside source command refers to the wrong interface.

    • The access list used in the NAT process is referencing the wrong subnet.

    • The NAT interfaces are not correctly assigned.  




Read more ...

CCNA 4 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 4 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 4 Chapter 6 Exam Answer, CCNA 4 Chapter 6, CCNA 4 Chapter 6 v5, CCNA 4 Chapter 6 100, CCNA 4 Chapter 6 2015


  1. What are two disadvantages of employing teleworkers in an organization? (Choose two.)​



    • increased usage of sick or vacation days

    • increased difficulty of tracking task progress

    • slower customer service response times

    • the need to implement a new management style

    • increase in office expenses




  2. Which technology provides a secure connection between a SOHO and the headquarters office?



    • VPN

    • WiMax

    • QoS

    • PPPoE




  3. What functionality is required on routers to provide remote workers with VoIP and videoconferencing capabilities?



    • IPsec

    • QoS

    • VPN

    • PPPoE




  4. Which networking technology will ensure reliable and secure remote access when a teleworker connects to a corporate network?



    • an encrypted VPN tunnel

    • routers with QoS capability

    • a VoIP and videoconferencing capable connection

    • broadband (cable or DSL) access to the corporate network




  5. In which layer of the TCP/IP protocol model does IPsec apply security to network data?



    • application

    • transport

    • internet

    • network access




  6. What are two Layer 2 WAN technologies that can provide secure remote connections between corporate branch offices? (Choose two.)



    • LTE

    • Frame Relay

    • leased lines

    • QoS

    • IPsec




  7. Which two network components does a teleworker require to connect remotely and securely from home to the corporate network? (Choose two.)



    • VPN client software or VPN-enabled router

    • multifunction security appliance

    • broadband Internet connection

    • VPN server or concentrator

    • authentication server




  8. Which two OSI Layer 1 specifications does DOCSIS define for a cable Internet connection? (Choose two.)



    • a deterministic media access method

    • channel bandwidth

    • modulation technique

    • VPN tunneling requirements

    • the separation of the voice and data transmissions




  9. Which cable network communication technology is secure, extremely resistant to noise, and employs spread-spectrum technology?



    • FDMA

    • CDMA

    • TDMA

    • S-CDMA




  10. Which standard specifies the channel frequencies and the deterministic access method of cable networks?



    • DOCSIS

    • LTE

    • WiMAX

    • 802.16




  11. What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology?



    • DSL upload and download speeds are always the same.

    • DSL is faster.

    • DSL has no distance limitations.

    • DSL is not a shared medium.




  12. Which medium is used for delivering data via DSL technology through PSTN?



    • fiber

    • copper

    • radio frequency

    • wireless




  13. How is voice traffic affected when the customer uses ADSL technology?



    • No special equipment is needed to separate voice and data signals.

    • Voice traffic is interrupted if the ADSL service fails.

    • ADSL signals can distort voice transmissions.

    • Voice signals are on a separate wire pair from ADSL signals.




  14. Which DSL technology provides higher downstream bandwidth to the user than upstream bandwidth?



    • ADSL

    • SDSL

    • CDMA

    • TDMA




  15. Which broadband wireless technology is based on the 802.11 standard?



    • municipal Wi-Fi

    • WiMAX

    • CDMA

    • UMTS




  16. Which type of long distance telecommunication technology provides point-to-point connections and cellular access?



    • WiMax

    • municipal Wi-Fi

    • satellite

    • mobile broadband




  17. A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be appropriate?



    • satellite

    • DSL

    • WiMax

    • cable




  18. Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea?



    • Wi-Fi Mesh

    • mobile broadband

    • WiMax

    • satellite




  19. Why is the MTU for a PPPoE DSL configuration reduced from 1500 bytes to 1492?



    • to enable CHAP authentication

    • to reduce congestion on the DSL link

    • to accommodate the PPPoE headers

    • to establish a secure tunnel with less overhead




  20. What are two characteristics of a PPPoE configuration on a Cisco customer router? (Choose two.)



    • The PPP configuration is on the dialer interface.

    • An MTU size of 1492 bytes is configured on the Ethernet interface.

    • The Ethernet interface does not have an IP address.

    • The customer router CHAP username and password are independent of what is configured on the ISP router.

    • The dialer pool command is applied to the Ethernet interface to link it to the dialer interface.




  21. Fill in the blank.


    DOCSIS specifies the   MAC         sub-layer as a Layer 2 requirement that defines either a deterministic access method, TDMA, or S-CDMA.




  22. Fill in the blank. Use only an acronym.
    PPPoE               creates a PPP tunnel through the DSL connection for the purpose of sending PPP frames.




  23. Match each type of broadband wireless technology with the correct description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch6_001




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CCNA 4 Chapter 7 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. A network design engineer is planning the implementation of a cost-effective method to interconnect multiple networks securely over the Internet. Which type of technology is required?

    • a GRE IP tunnel
    • a leased line
    • a VPN gateway
    • a dedicated ISP
  2. What is one benefit of using VPNs for remote access?

    • lower protocol overhead
    • ease of troubleshooting
    • potential for reduced connectivity costs
    • increased quality of service
  3. How is “tunneling” accomplished in a VPN?

    • New headers from one or more VPN protocols encapsulate the original packets.
    • All packets between two hosts are assigned to a single physical medium to ensure that the packets are kept private.
    • Packets are disguised to look like other types of traffic so that they will be ignored by potential attackers.
    • A dedicated circuit is established between the source and destination devices for the duration of the connection.
  4. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?

    • Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL
    • Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN
    • Frame Relay
    • remote access VPN using IPsec
    • site-to-site VPN
  5. Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

    • A toy manufacturer has a permanent VPN connection to one of its parts suppliers.
    • All users at a large branch office can access company resources through a single VPN connection.
    • A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the Internet connection at a hotel.
    • A small branch office with three employees has a Cisco ASA that is used to create a VPN connection to the HQ.
    • An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a laptop in order to connect to the company network.
  6. Which statement describes a feature of site-to-site VPNs?

    • The VPN connection is not statically defined.
    • VPN client software is installed on each host.
    • Internal hosts send normal, unencapsulated packets.
    • Individual hosts can enable and disable the VPN connection.
  7. What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?

    • to provide packet level encryption of IP traffic between remote sites
    • to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites
    • to support basic unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites
    • to provide fixed flow-control mechanisms with IP tunneling between remote sites
  8. Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

    • a mobile user who connects to a router at a central site
    • a branch office that connects securely to a central site
    • a mobile user who connects to a SOHO site
    • a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption
  9. Refer to the exhibit. A tunnel was implemented between routers R1 and R2. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the R1 command output? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Ch7_01

    • This tunnel mode is not the default tunnel interface mode for Cisco IOS software.
    • This tunnel mode provides encryption.
    • The data that is sent across this tunnel is not secure.
    • This tunnel mode does not support IP multicast tunneling.
    • A GRE tunnel is being used.
  10. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address would be configured on the tunnel interface of the destination router?CCNA4_Ch7_02

    • 172.16.1.1
    • 172.16.1.2
    • 209.165.200.225
    • 209.165.200.226
  11. Which statement correctly describes IPsec?

    • IPsec works at Layer 3, but can protect traffic from Layer 4 through Layer 7.
    • IPsec uses algorithms that were developed specifically for that protocol.
    • IPsec implements its own method of authentication.
    • IPsec is a Cisco proprietary standard.
  12. Which function of IPsec security services allows the receiver to verify that the data was transmitted without being changed or altered in any way?

    • anti-replay protection
    • authentication
    • data integrity
    • confidentiality
  13. Which statement describes a characteristic of IPsec VPNs?

    • IPsec is a framework of Cisco proprietary protocols.
    • IPsec can secure traffic at Layers 1 through 3.
    • IPsec encryption causes problems with routing.
    • IPsec works with all Layer 2 protocols.
  14. What is an IPsec protocol that provides data confidentiality and authentication for IP packets?

    • AH
    • ESP
    • RSA
    • IKE
  15. What two encryption algorithms are used in IPsec VPNs? (Choose two.)

    • DH
    • PSK
    • IKE
    • AES
    • 3DES
  16. Which algorithm is an asymmetrical key cryptosystem?

    • RSA
    • AES
    • 3DES
    • DES
  17. Which two algorithms use Hash-based Message Authentication Code for message authentication? (Choose two.)

    • 3DES
    • DES
    • AES
    • MD5
    • SHA
  18. Which three statements describe the building blocks that make up the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three.)

    • IPsec uses encryption algorithms and keys to provide secure transfer of data.
    • IPsec uses Diffie-Hellman algorithms to encrypt data that is transferred through the VPN.
    • IPsec uses 3DES algorithms to provide the highest level of security for data that is transferred through a VPN.
    • IPsec uses secret key cryptography to encrypt messages that are sent through a VPN.
    • IPsec uses Diffie-Hellman as a hash algorithm to ensure integrity of data that is transmitted through a VPN.
    • IPsec uses ESP to provide confidential transfer of data by encrypting IP packets.
  19. A network design engineer is planning the implementation of an IPsec VPN. Which hashing algorithm would provide the strongest level of message integrity?

    • SHA-1
    • MD5
    • AES
    • 512-bit SHA
  20. What is the purpose of utilizing Diffie-Hellman (DH) algorithms as part of the IPsec standard?

    • DH algorithms allow unlimited parties to establish a shared public key that is used by encryption and hash algorithms.
    • DH algorithms allow two parties to establish a shared secret key that is used by encryption and hash algorithms.
    • DH algorithms allow unlimited parties to establish a shared secret key that is used by encryption and hash algorithms.
    • DH algorithms allow two parties to establish a shared public key that is used by encryption and hash algorithms.
  21. What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?

    • It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.
    • It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.
    • It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
    • It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
  22. Which Cisco VPN solution provides limited access to internal network resources by utilizing a Cisco ASA and provides browser-based access only?

    • clientless SSL VPN
    • client-based SSL VPN
    • SSL
    • IPsec
  23. What key question would help determine whether an organization should use an SSL VPN or an IPsec VPN for the remote access solution of the organization?

    • Is a Cisco router used at the destination of the remote access tunnel?
    • What applications or network resources do the users need for access?
    • Are both encryption and authentication required?
    • Do users need to be able to connect without requiring special VPN software?
  24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    What problem is preventing the hosts from communicating across the VPN tunnel?

    • The EIGRP configuration is incorrect.
    • The tunnel IP addresses are incorrect.
    • The tunnel source interfaces are incorrect.
    • The tunnel destinations addresses are incorrect.
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CCNA 4 Chapter 8 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. What are the most common syslog messages?

    • those that occur when a packet matches a parameter condition in an access control list
    • link up and link down messages
    • output messages that are generated from debug output
    • error messages about hardware or software malfunctions
  2. When logging is used, which severity level indicates that a device is unusable?

    • Alert – Level 1
    • Critical – Level 2
    • Emergency – Level 0
    • Error – Level 3
  3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the syslog message that was generated by the router? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Ch8_04

    • This message resulted from an unusual error requiring reconfiguration of the interface.
    • This message indicates that the interface should be replaced.
    • This message is a level 5 notification message.
    • This message indicates that service timestamps have been configured.
    • This message indicates that the interface changed state five times.
  4. A network technician has issued the service timestamps log datetime command in the configuration of the branch router. Which additional command is required to include the date and time in logged events?

    • Branch1(config)# service timestamps log uptime
    • Branch1# clock set 08:00:00 05 AUG 2013
    • Branch1(config)# service timestamps debug datetime
    • Branch1# copy running-config startup-config
  5. Refer to the exhibit. From what location have the syslog messages been retrieved?CCNA4_Ch8_02

    • syslog server
    • syslog client
    • router RAM
    • router NVRAM
  6. Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 17:46:26.143 represent?CCNA4_Ch8_03

    • the time passed since the syslog server has been started
    • the time when the syslog message was issued
    • the time passed since the interfaces have been up
    • the time on the router when the show logging command was issued
  7. Which destination do Cisco routers and switches use by default when sending syslog messages for all severity levels?

    • console
    • nearest syslog server
    • NVRAM
    • RAM
  8. A network administrator has issued the logging trap 4 global configuration mode command. What is the result of this command?

    • After four events, the syslog client will send an event message to the syslog server.
    • The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and higher.
    • The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and lower.​
    • The syslog client will send to the syslog server event messages with an identification trap level of only 4.​
  9. Which statement describes SNMP operation?

    • An NMS periodically polls the SNMP agents that are residing on managed devices by using traps to query the devices for data.​
    • A get request is used by the SNMP agent to query the device for data.​
    • An SNMP agent that resides on a managed device collects information about the device and stores that information remotely in the MIB that is located on the NMS.​
    • A set request is used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device.
  10. What are SNMP trap messages?

    • messages that are used by the NMS to query the device for data
    • unsolicited messages that are sent by the SNMP agent and alert the NMS to a condition on the network
    • messages that are used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device
    • messages that are sent periodically by the NMS to the SNMP agents that reside on managed devices to query the device for data
  11. Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

    • SNMP set messages
    • SNMP trap messages
    • SNMP get messages
    • SNMP community strings
  12. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

    • packet encryption
    • message integrity
    • community strings
    • source validation
  13. A network administrator has issued the snmp-server user admin1 admin v3 encrypted auth md5 abc789 priv des 256 key99 command. What are two features of this command? (Choose two.)

    • It adds a new user to the SNMP group.
    • It restricts SNMP access to defined SNMP managers.
    • It forces the network manager to log into the agent to retrieve the SNMP messages.
    • It uses the MD5 authentication of the SNMP messages.
    • It allows a network administrator to configure a secret encrypted password on the SNMP server.
  14. How can SNMP access be restricted to a specific SNMP manager?

    • Use the snmp-server community command to configure the community string with no access level.
    • Specify the IP address of the SNMP manager by using the snmp-server host command.
    • Use the snmp-server traps command to enable traps on an SNMP manager.
    • Define an ACL and reference it by using the snmp-server community command.
  15. A network administrator issues two commands on a router:

    R1(config)# snmp-server host 10.10.50.25 version 2c campus
    R1(config)# snmp-server enable traps

    What can be concluded after the commands are entered?

    • No traps are sent, because the notification-types argument was not specified yet.
    • Traps are sent with the source IP address as 10.10.50.25.
    • If an interface comes up, a trap is sent to the server.
    • The snmp-server enable traps command needs to be used repeatedly if a particular subset of trap types is desired.
  16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the produced output?CCNA4_Ch8_05

    • An ACL was configured to restrict SNMP access to an SNMP manager.
    • This is the output of the show snmp command without any parameters.
    • The system contact was not configured with the snmp-server contact command.
    • The location of the device was not configured with the snmp-server location command.
  17. What is a difference between SNMP and NetFlow?​

    • Unlike NetFlow, SNMP uses a “push”-based model.​
    • NetFlow collects more detailed traffic statistics on IP networks than SNMP does.
    • SNMP only gathers traffic statistics, whereas NetFlow can also collect many other performance indicators, such as interface errors and CPU usage.​
    • Unlike NetFlow, SNMP may be used to provide IP accounting for billing purposes.
  18. How does NetFlow function on a Cisco router or multilayer switch?

    • Netflow captures and analyzes traffic.
    • One user connection to an application exists as two NetFlow flows.
    • On 2960 switches, Netlow allows for data export.
    • NetFlow does not consume any additional memory.​
  19. Which type of information can an administrator obtain with the show ip cache flow command?

    • the NetFlow version that is enabled
    • whether NetFlow is configured on the correct interface and in the correct direction
    • the configuration of the export parameters
    • the protocol that uses the largest volume of traffic​
  20. Which two statements describe items to be considered in configuring NetFlow? (Choose two.)

    • Netflow requires both management and agent software.
    • Netflow requires UDP port 514 for notification messages.
    • NetFlow consumes additional memory.
    • Netflow can only be used in a unidirectional flow.
    • NetFlow can only be used if all devices on the network support it.
  21. What is the most common purpose of implementing NetFlow in a networked environment?

    • to support accounting and monitoring with consumer applications
    • to actively capture traffic from networked devices
    • to monitor live data usage and to control traffic flow with set messages
    • to passively capture changing events that occur in the network and to perform after-the-fact-analysis
  22. Refer to the exhibit. While planning an upgrade, a network administrator uses the Cisco NetFlow utility to analyze data flow in the current network. Which protocol used the greatest amount of network time?CCNA4_Ch8_01

    • TCP-Telnet
    • TCP-FTP
    • TCP-other
    • UDP-DNS
    • UDP-other
  23. Fill in the blank.
    The       syslog        protocol uses UDP port 514 and is the most common method to access system messages provided by networking devices.

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CCNA 4 Chapter 9 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. When should a network performance baseline be measured?

    • during normal work hours of an organization
    • immediately after the main network devices restarted
    • after normal work hours to reduce possible interruptions
    • when a denial of service attack to the network is detected and blocked
  2. A network engineer issues the show cdp neighbor command on several network devices during the process of network documentation. What is the purpose of performing this command?

    • to obtain information about directly connected Cisco devices
    • to check the networks that are advertised by the neighboring routers
    • to verify the network addresses that are attached to the network devices
    • to check the connectivity of PCs that are connected to the network devices
  3. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

    • syslog records and messages
    • the network performance baseline
    • debug output and packet captures
    • network configuration files
  4. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?

    • Document the symptoms.
    • Determine the symptoms.
    • Gather information.
    • Determine ownership.
    • Narrow the scope.
  5. A network technician is troubleshooting an email connection problem. Which question to the end-user will provide clear information to better define the problem?

    • Is your email working now?
    • How big are the emails you tried to send?
    • What kind of equipment are you using to send emails?
    • When did you first notice your email problem?
  6. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect critical network infrastructure components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

    • change-control procedures
    • one of the layered troubleshooting approaches
    • knowledge base guidelines
    • syslog messages and reports
  7. After which step in the network troubleshooting process would one of the layered troubleshooting methods be used?

    • documenting symptoms
    • determining ownership
    • narrowing the scope
    • gathering symptoms from suspect devices
  8. A user reports that the workstation cannot connect to a networked printer in the office in order to print a report created with word processing software. Which troubleshooting action by the helpdesk technician would follow the divide-and-conquer approach?

    • Ask the user to launch the web browser.
    • Ask the user to save the working document.
    • Ask the user to issue the ipconfig command.
    • Ask the user to unplug and reattach the network cable.
  9. A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem and can successfully ping between two devices. However, Telnet between the same two devices does not work. Which OSI layers should the administrator investigate next?

    • all of the layers
    • from the network layer to the application layer
    • from the network layer to the physical layer
    • only the network layer
  10. Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?

    • top-down
    • bottom-up
    • substitution
    • divide-and-conquer
  11. Which number represents the most severe level of syslog logging?

    • 0
    • 1
    • 7
    • 10
    • 100
  12. A company is setting up a web site with SSL technology to protect the authentication credentials required to access the web site. A network engineer needs to verify that the setup is correct and that the authentication is indeed encrypted. Which tool should be used?

    • fault-management tool
    • protocol analyzer
    • baselining tool
    • cable analyzer
  13. Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

    • TDR
    • digital multimeter
    • NAM
    • portable network analyzer
    • DTX cable analyzer
  14. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Ch8_02

    • R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.
    • R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.
    • R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.
    • R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.
    • The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.
  15. An administrator is troubleshooting an Internet connectivity problem on a router. The output of the show interfaces gigabitethernet 0/0 command reveals higher than normal framing errors on the interface that connects to the Internet. At what layer of the OSI model is the problem likely occurring?

    • Layer 1
    • Layer 2
    • Layer 3
    • Layer 4
    • Layer 7
  16. Users report that the new web site http://www.company1.biz cannot be accessed. The helpdesk technician checks and verifies that the web site can be accessed with http://www.company1.biz:90. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is involved in troubleshooting this issue?

    • application
    • transport
    • internet
    • network access
  17. A user reports that after an OS patch of the networking subsystem has been applied to a workstation, it performs very slowly when connecting to network resources. A network technician tests the link with a cable analyzer and notices that the workstation sends an excessive number of frames smaller than 64 bytes and also other meaningless frames. What is the possible cause of the problem?

    • cabling faults
    • corrupted NIC driver
    • Ethernet signal attenuation
    • corrupted application installation
  18. A network administrator is configuring SSH on a router. When verifying the configuration, the administrator notices that the SSH connection requests fail, but the Telnet connection requests from the same workstation are successful. Which two parts of the router configuration should be checked to try to locate the problem? (Choose two.)

    • The ip access-class command is missing.
    • The password is misconfigured on the console line.
    • The transport input command is incorrect on the vty lines.
    • A standard ACL is possibly blocking the workstation from access to the router.
    • An extended ACL that is referencing the port argument for SSH is misconfigured.
  19. A user in a large office calls technical support to complain that a PC has suddenly lost connectivity to the network. The technician asks the caller to talk to nearby users to see if other machines are affected. The caller reports that several immediate neighbors in the same department have a similar problem and that they cannot ping each other. Those who are seated in other departments have connectivity. What should the technician check as the first step in troubleshooting the issue?

    • the power outlet to the PC that is used by the caller
    • the trunks between switches in the wiring closet
    • the status of the departmental workgroup switch in the wiring closet
    • the cable that connects the PC of the caller to the network jack
    • the cable connection between a PC and a network outlet that is used by a neighbor
  20. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

    • arp -a
    • ipconfig
    • nslookup
    • ping
    • telnet
    • tracert
    • netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
  21. After cables were reconnected to a switch in a wiring closet, several PCs that had been previously configured manually can no longer access resources outside the local network. The PC configurations were not altered in the process and resources on the local network can still be accessed. What is a possible cause of the problem?

    • The cabling to the PCs is faulty.
    • The PCs are no longer on the correct VLAN.
    • The DHCP server has been misconfigured.
    • The DNS configuration on the PCs is incorrect.
  22. Refer to exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting a WAN connectivity problem. A ping to a remote router is successful and an attempt to telnet to the same router displays the exhibited output. What does the output verify?CCNA4_Ch8_01

    • A Telnet password has not been configured on the remote router.
    • The web server service is password protected.
    • The transport layer is connecting successfully.
    • The remote router IPv6 address is incorrect.
  23. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Ch8_03

    • There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
    • The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
    • There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
    • The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
    • This host does not have a default gateway configured.
  24. Fill in the blank.
    Use the     ARP                cache to verify IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings on a host computer.

  25. Match the troubleshooting tool to the correct category. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch9_001

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